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If the Laws righteousness was fulfillable in this sense, why did the Apostle in the Verse foregoing speak of the Laws NONLATINALPHABET or weakness? whence doth that proceed but from our weakness and utter inability perfectly to obey it? If it be said (as it is) that Christ came in flesh for this very end to take off this weakness, that we might be able fully to keep it in our own persons; that we peremptorily deny: |
If the Laws righteousness was fulfillable in this sense, why did the Apostle in the Verse foregoing speak of the Laws or weakness? whence does that proceed but from our weakness and utter inability perfectly to obey it? If it be said (as it is) that christ Come in Flesh for this very end to take off this weakness, that we might be able Fully to keep it in our own Persons; that we peremptorily deny: |
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